Saturday, 17 August 2019

IELTS General Reading 17-08-2019: Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-28. Read the texts below and answer the following questions

1. The Vitamin Shoppe: 1,946 part-time openings.
The Vitamin Shoppe is a New Jersey-based retailer of nutritional supplements. They also operate stores in Canada under the name "VitaPath". The company provides approximately 8,000 different SKU's of supplements through its retail stores and over 20,000 different SKU's of supplements through its online retail websites.

Employee Review: "Good growth opportunities and stores opening all over the US all year 'round. Company based out of NJ, so more progressive policies on employment and benefits. Good vacation, health, and dental benefits. Payment is above average. Good policies on customer service interaction as well. Focus on Customer service vs. pushing products."


2. Chipotle: 1,553 part-time openings.
Chipotle is known for its use of organic meats throughout its more than 1,500 restaurants, which are located in 45 states. Since having been founded in 1993, the chain has since exploded and now counts some 37,000 employees. It is a pioneer in the "fast casual" dining movement.

Employee Review: "The people I work with are awesome and the food is good. It pays my bills and makes me laugh. The schedule is super flexible but it's a lot of work. If you're looking for something easy and laid back, keep looking."

3. Advantage Sales & Marketing: 1,742 part-time openings.
Advantage Sales & Marketing provides outsourced sales, merchandising, and marketing services to consumer goods and food product manufacturers and suppliers. Owning more than 65 offices in the US and Canada, ASM does merchandising for 1,200 clients -- including Johnson & Johnson, Mars, Unilever, Energizer.

Employee Review: "Long lasting business, able to adapt to changes in market. Well-thought out schedule, and flexible time off for both vacation and illness."

4. Universal Protection Service: 1,219 part-time openings.
Universal Protection Service is one of the largest providers of security services in the U.S. They offer an expansive range of security solutions for airports, healthcare facilities, office buildings, and more.

Employee Review: "Good pay depending on where you work. Room for advancement based on availability. Better company than any other I have worked for in security."

5. PSA Healthcare: 1,295 part-time openings
PSA Healthcare, also known as Pediatric Services of America, provides comprehensive home health services through a branch of office across the United States. The company is headquartered in Atlanta, Ga.

Employee Review: "I love working one-on-one with the pediatric patient and their families. You have the time needed to give great compassionate care! Office staff and supervisors are very good with both employees and clients. There is a lot of flexibility with staffing. I never received grief for requesting a day off."

Questions 14-22
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 14–22 on your answer sheet.

14. Which offer has the most part-time openings?
      A Chipotle
      B PSA Healthcare
      C The Vitamin Shoppe
      D Advantage Sales & Marketing

15. Which of these companies operate both in USA and Canada?
      A The Vitamin Shoppe and Advantage Sales & Marketing
      B PSA Healthcare and Advantage Sales & Marketing
      C Chipotle and PSA Healthcare
      D PSA Healthcare and The Vitamin Shoppe

16. Review of which company says that it is the best security company he/she worked for?
      A Chipotle
      B The Vitamin Shoppe
      C Universal Protection Service
      D PSA Healthcare

17. Which company was founded in 1993?
      A The Vitamin Shoppe
      B Universal Protection Service
      C PSA Healthcare
      D Chipotle

18. Main office of which company is situated in Atlanta?
      A The Vitamin Shoppe
      B PSA Healthcare
      C Chipotle
      D Advantage Sales & Marketing

19. VitaPath is the other name of which company?
      A PSA Healthcare
      B Universal Protection Service
      C The Vitamin Shoppe
      D Advantage Sales & Marketing

20. Which review doesn’t mention a comfortable timetable?
      A Chipotle
      B Advantage Sales & Marketing
      C The Vitamin Shoppe
      D PSA Healthcare

21. Which company is described as a long lasting business?
      A PSA Healthcare
      B Advantage Sales & Marketing
      C Universal Protection Service
      D Chipotle

22. Organic meat is used by what company?
      A Chipotle
      B The Vitamin Shoppe
      C Advantage Sales & Marketing
      D None of them

Questions 23-28
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Section 2?
In boxes 23–28 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

23. The Vitamin Shoppe has an above average salary, according to the review.

24. Reviewer of the company Chipotle says that working there is both fun and earns enough money.

25. Advantage Sales & Marketing owns 65 offices all over the world.

26. Universal Protection Service offers various security services in the USA.

27. Reviewer of the PSA Healthcare praises its high wages.

28. None of the offers included an approximate salary in the description.

ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 2
  1. C
  2. A
  3. C
  4. D
  5. B
  6. C
  7. C
  8. B
  9. A
  10. True
  11. True
  12. False
  13. True
  14. Not Given
  15. True

IELTS General Reading 17-08-2019 - Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
The Earth
(A) The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and it is the only planet known to have life on it. The Earth formed around 4.5 billion years ago. It is one of four rocky planets on the inside of the Solar System. The other three are Mercury, Venus, and Mars.

(B) The large mass of the Sun makes the Earth move around it, just as the mass of the Earth makes the Moon move around it. The Earth also turns round in space, so different parts face the Sun at different times. The Earth goes around the Sun once (one "year") for every 365¼ times it turns all the way around (one "day").

(C) The Moon goes around the Earth about every 27⅓ days, and reflects light from the Sun. As the Earth goes round the Sun at the same time, the changing light of the Moon takes about 29½ days to go from dark to bright to dark again. That is where the idea of "month" came from. However, now most months have 30 or 31 days so they fit into one year.

(D) The Earth is the only planet in our Solar System that has a large amount of liquid water. About 71% of the surface of the Earth is covered by oceans. Because of this, it is sometimes called the "Blue Planet".

(E) Because of its water, the Earth is home to millions of species of plants and animals. The things that live on Earth have changed its surface greatly. For example, early cyanobacteria changed the air and gave it oxygen. The living part of the Earth's surface is called the "biosphere".
(F) The Earth is part of the eight planets and many thousands of small bodies that move around the Sun as its Solar System. The Solar System is moving through the Orion Arm of the Milky Way Galaxy now, and will be for about the next 10,000 years.

(G) The Earth is generally 150,000,000 kilometers or 93,000,000 miles away from the Sun (this distance is named an "Astronomical Unit"). The Earth moves along its way at an average speed of about 30 km or 19 mi a second. The Earth turns all the way around about 365¼ times in the time it takes for the Earth to go all the way around the Sun. To make up this extra bit of a day every year, an additional day is used every four years. This is named a "leap year".

(H) The Moon goes around the Earth at an average distance of 400,000 kilometers (250,000 mi). It is locked to Earth, so that it always has the same half facing the Earth; the other half is called the "dark side of the Moon". It takes about 27⅓ days for the Moon to go all the way around the Earth but, because the Earth is moving around the Sun at the same time, it takes about 29½ days for the Moon to go from dark to bright to dark again. This is where the word "month" came from, even though most months now have 30 or 31 days.

Questions 1–8
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H. Which paragraph contains the following information?  Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1. Earth’s natural satellite 

2. Distance between Earth and Sun 

3. General information about Earth 

4. The Solar System 

5. Length of most moths 

6. Another name for Earth 

7. The living part of the Earth's surface 

8. The movements of Earth around the Sun 

Questions 9-13

Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. Apart from Earth, other rocky planets in our Solar Systems are Venus, Mars and .
10. Moon  from the Sun on Earth.
11. There are millions of  of plants and animals that inhabit Earth.
12. Now the Solar System is travelling through  .
13. The dark side of the Moon is the side, which  faces Earth.

ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 1
  1. H
  2. G
  3. A
  4. F
  5. C
  6. D
  7. E
  8. B
  9. Mercury
  10. Reflects light
  11. Species
  12. The Orion Arm
  13. Never

Friday, 16 August 2019

IELTS General Reading 16-08-2019: Reading Passage 3

Read Section 3 and answer Questions 29–40
CALISTHENICS
The world’s oldest form of resistance training
(A) From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the mighty armies of the Greco-Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern American high schools, calisthenics has endured and thrived because of its simplicity and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines or resistance bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.
(B) Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’ account of the Battle of Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle, the god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on his Spartan enemies. The scouts informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas, were practicing some kind of bizarre, synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had just
300. Leonidas was informed that he must retreat or face annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing battle they managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements arrived. It turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form of calisthenics by which they were building awe-inspiring physical strength and endurance.
(C) The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline and strength, but also as an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself is derived from the Greek words for beauty and strength. We know from historical records and images from pottery, mosaics and sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics training seriously.
They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their combination of athleticism and physical beauty. You may have heard a friend whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’. This expression has travelled through centuries
and continents, and the source of this envy and admiration is the calisthenics method.

(D) Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw the birth of gymnastics, an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting horses and balancing beams to display physical prowess. This period is also when the phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of astounding physical strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand balancing and horizontal bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.
(E) In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas – was crowned “The World’s Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach stemmed from traditional calisthenics, and through a series of mail order comic books he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young adults through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the method would ever succeed him.
(F) In the 1960s and 1970s calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined with physical beauty was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This became the sport of body building. Although body building’s pioneers were drawn from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an increase in muscle size. Body building icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva, were called mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of this nature was only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones which boosted muscle development while harming overall health. These body builders also relied on free weights and machines, which allowed them to target and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally proportioned body.
Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions, had little to offer the mass monsters.
(G) In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived to be vulnerable, such as women, people recuperating from injuries and school students.
Although some of the strongest and most physically developed human beings ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of sophisticated calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was reduced to nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.
(H) In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use of calisthenics. Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development frequently lead to joint pain, injuries, unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular gyms and programmes emphasize calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training, gymnastics and traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover the original Greek vision of physical beauty and strength and harmony of the mind-body connection.

Questions 29-35

The text has eight paragraphs, A–H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.
29. The origin of the word ‘calisthenics’. 
30. The last popular supporter of calisthenics. 
31. The first use of calisthenics as a training method. 
32. A multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength. 
33. Reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages. 
34. The use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength. 
35. A reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences. 

QUESTIONS 36–40
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.
During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than (36)  or having an attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this new sport of body building had a background in calisthenics but the most famous practitioners became known as (37)  on account of the impressive size of their muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles to a monstrous size. Calisthenics then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those recovering from (38) . Much of the advanced knowledge about calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status of a simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress to (39) . Currently a revival of calisthenics is under way as extreme muscle building can harm the body leaving it sore, out of balance, and in poor (40) .

ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 3
  1. C
  2. E
  3. B
  4. H
  5. A
  6. F
  7. D
  8. Functional strength
  9. Mass monsters
  10. Injuries
  11. Weight training
  12. Cardiovascular health

IELTS General Reading 16-08-2019: Reading Passage 2

Read Section 2 and answer Questions 15–28
BENEFICIAL WORK PRACTICES FOR THE KEYBOARD
OPERATOR
(A) Sensible work practices are an important factor in the prevention of muscular fatigue; discomfort or pain in the arms, neck, hands or back; or eye strain which can be associated with constant or regular work at a keyboard and visual display unit (VDU).
(B) It is vital that the employer pays attention to the physical setting such as workplace design, the office environment, and placement of monitors as well as the organisation of the work and individual work habits. Operators must be able to recognise work-related health problems and be given the opportunity to participate in the management of these. Operators should take note of and follow the preventive measures outlined below.
(C) The typist must be comfortably accommodated in a chair that is adjustable for height with a back rest that is also easily adjustable both for angle and height. The back rest and sitting ledge (with a curved edge) should preferably be cloth-covered to avoid excessive perspiration.
(D) When the keyboard operator is working from a paper file or manuscript, it should be at the same distance from the eyes as the screen. The most convenient position can be found by using some sort of holder. Individual arrangement will vary according to whether the operator spends more time looking at the VDU or the paper – whichever the eyes are focused on for the majority of time should be put directly in front of the operator.
(E) While keying, it is advisable to have frequent but short pauses of around thirty to sixty seconds to proofread. When doing this, relax your hands. After you have been keying for sixty minutes, you should have a ten minute change of activity. During this spell it is important that you do not remain seated but stand up or walk around. This period could be profitably used to do filing or collect and deliver documents.
(F) Generally, the best position for a VDU is at right angles to the window. If this is not possible then glare from the window can be controlled by blinds, curtains or movable screens. Keep the face of the VDU vertical to avoid glare from overhead lighting.
(G) Unsatisfactory work practices or working conditions may result in aches or pain.
Symptoms should be reported to your supervisor early on so that the cause of the trouble can be corrected and the operator should seek medical attention.

Questions 15–21
The text on the next page has seven sections, A–G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i–x, in boxes 15–21 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
  1. How can reflection problems be avoided?
  2. How long should I work without a break?
  3. What if I experience any problems?
  4. When is the best time to do filing chores?
  5. What makes a good seat?
  6. What are the common health problems?
  7. What is the best kind of lighting to have?
  8. What are the roles of management and workers?
  9. Why does a VDU create eye fatigue?
  10. Where should I place the documents?

15. Section A 
16. Section B 
17. Section C 
18. Section D 
19. Section E 
20. Section F 
21. Section G 


Workplace dismissals
Before the dismissal
If an employer wants to dismiss an employee, there is a process to be followed.
Instances of minor misconduct and poor performance must first be addressed through some preliminary steps.
Firstly, you should be given an improvement note. This will explain the problem, outline any necessary changes and offer some assistance in correcting the situation. Then, if your employer does not think your performance has improved, you may be given a written warning. The last step is called a final written warning which will inform you that you will be dismissed unless there are improvements in performance. If there is no improvement, your employer can begin the dismissal procedure.
The dismissal procedure begins with a letter from the employer setting out the charges made against the employee. The employee will be invited to a meeting to discuss these accusations. If the employee denies the charges, he is given the opportunity to appear at a formal appeal hearing in front of a different manager. After this, a decision is made as to whether the employee will be let go or not.
Dismissals
Of the various types of dismissal, a fair dismissal is the best kind if an employer wants an employee out of the workplace. A fair dismissal is legally and contractually strong and it means all the necessary procedures have been correctly followed. In cases where an employee’s misconduct has been very serious, however, an employer may not have to follow all of these procedures. If the employer can prove that the employee’s behaviour was illegal, dangerous or severely wrong, the employee can be dismissed immediately: a procedure known as summary dismissal.
Sometimes a dismissal is not considered to have taken place fairly. One of these types is wrongful dismissal and involves a breach of contract by the employer. This could involve dismissing an employee without notice or without following proper disciplinary and dismissal procedures. Another type, unfair dismissal, is when an employee is sacked without good cause.
There is another kind of dismissal, known as constructive dismissal, which is slightly peculiar because the employee is not actually openly dismissed by the employer. In this case the employee is forced into resigning by an employer who tries to make significant changes to the original contract. This could  mean an employee might have to work night shifts after originally signing on for day work, or he could be made to work in dangerous conditions.

Questions 22 and 23
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22–23 on your answer sheet.
22. If an employee receives a  , this means he will lose his job if his work does not get better.
23. If an employee does not accept the reasons for his dismissal, a  can be arranged.

Questions 24–28
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 24–28) and the list of terms in the box below.
Match each description with the correct term A–E.
Write the appropriate letter A–E in boxes 24–28 on your answer sheet.

24. An employee is asked to leave work straight away because he has done something really bad.
25. An employee is pressured to leave his job unless he accepts conditions that are very different from those agreed to in the beginning.
26. An employer gets rid of an employee without keeping to conditions in the contract.
27. The reason for an employee’s dismissal is not considered good enough.
28. The reasons for an employee’s dismissal are acceptable by law and the terms of the employment contract.



A Fair dismissal
B Summary dismissal
C Unfair dismissal
D Wrongful dismissal
E Constructive dismissal

ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 2
  1. vi
  2. viii
  3. v
  4. x
  5. ii
  6. i
  7. iii
  8. Final written warning
  9. Formal appeal hearing
  10. B
  11. E
  12. D
  13. C
  14. A

IELTS General Reading 16-08-2019: Reading Passage 1

Read Section 1 and answer Questions 1–14
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
Revised July 2011
This applies to all persons on the school campus
In cases of emergency (e.g. fire), find the nearest teacher who will: send a messenger at full speed to the Office OR inform the Office via phone ext. 99.
PROCEDURE FOR EVACUATION
1. Warning of an emergency evacuation will be marked by a number of short bell rings. (In the event of a power failure, this may be a hand-held bell or siren.)
2. All class work will cease immediately.
3. Students will leave their bags, books and other possessions where they are.
4. Teachers will take the class rolls.
5. Classes will vacate the premises using the nearest staircase. If these stairs are inaccessible, use the nearest alternative staircase. Do not use the lifts. Do not run.
6. Each class, under the teacher’s supervision, will move in a brisk, orderly fashion to the paved quadrangle area adjacent to the car park.
7. All support staff will do the same.
8. The Marshalling Supervisor, Ms Randall, will be wearing a red cap and she will be waiting there with the master timetable and staff list in her possession.
9. Students assemble in the quad with their teacher at the time of evacuation. The teacher will do a head count and check the roll.
10. Each teacher sends a student to the Supervisor to report whether all students have been accounted for. After checking, students will sit down (in the event of rain or wet pavement they may remain standing).
11. The Supervisor will inform the Office when all staff and students have been accounted for.
12. All students, teaching staff and support personnel remain in the evacuation area until the All Clear signal is given.
13. The All Clear will be a long bell ring or three blasts on the siren.
14. Students will return to class in an orderly manner under teacher guidance.
15. In the event of an emergency occurring during lunch or breaks, students are to assemble in their home-room groups in the quad and await their home-room teacher.

Questions 1-8
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1–8 on your answer sheet.

1. In an emergency, a teacher will either phone the office or .

2. The signal for evacuation will normally be several .

3. If possible, students should leave the building by the .

4. They then walk quickly to the .

5.  will join the teachers and students in the quad.

6. Each class teacher will count up his or her students and mark .

7. After the  , everyone may return to class.

8. If there is an emergency at lunchtime, students gather in the quad in  and wait for their teacher.

Read the texts below and answer Questions 9–14
Community Education

SHORT COURSES: BUSINESS
Business Basics 
Gain foundation knowledge for employment in an accounts position with bookkeeping and business basics through to intermediate level; suitable for anyone requiring knowledge from the ground up.
Code B/ED011
16th or 24th April 9am–4pm
Cost $420
Bookkeeping 
This course will provide students with a comprehensive understanding of bookkeeping and a great deal of hands-on experience.
Code B/ED020
19th April 9am–2.30pm (one session only so advance bookings essential)
Cost $250
New Enterprise Module 
Understand company structures, tax rates, deductions, employer obligations, profit and loss statements, GST and budgeting for tax.
Code B/ED030
15th or 27th May 6pm–9pm
Cost $105
Social Networking – the Latest Marketing Tool
This broad overview gives you the opportunity to analyse what web technologies are available and how they can benefit your organisation.
Code B/ED033
1st or 8th or 15th June 6pm–9pm
Cost $95
Communication 
Take the fear out of talking to large gatherings of people. Gain the public-speaking experience that will empower you with better communication skills and confidence.
Code B/ED401
12th or 13th or 14th
July 6pm–9pm
Cost $90

 

Questions 9–14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 9–14 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

9. Business Basics is appropriate for beginners.

10. Bookkeeping has no practical component.

11. Bookkeeping is intended for advanced students only.

12. The New Enterprise Module can help your business become more profitable.

13. Social Networking focuses on a specific website to help your business succeed. 

14. The Communication class involves speaking in front of an audience.

ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 1
  1. Send a messenger
  2. Short bell rings
  3. Nearest staircase
  4. Quadrangle
  5. Support staff
  6. The roll
  7. All clear signal
  8. Home-room groups
  9. True
  10. False
  11. Not given
  12. Not given
  13. False
  14. True

Thursday, 15 August 2019

IELTS Reading 15-08-2019: Reading Passage 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29–40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.
The battle over the gender price gap
Boots has reduced the price of "feminine" razors to bring them in line with men's. The chemist chain says it's just an isolated incident, but campaigners say its part of a "pink tax" that discriminates against women. Who's right and what's the bigger story, ask Jessica McCallin and Claire Bates.
Campaigners against what's been dubbed the "pink tax" - where retailers charge women more than men for similar products - are celebrating after Boots said it would change the price of some of its goods. A Change.org petition has already gathered more than 43,000 signatures. The issue has been raised in Parliament. Paula Sherriff, Labour MP for Dewsbury, called a debate on the issue on Tuesday. She wants the government to commission independent research to quantify the extent of the problem, arguing that it amounts to women paying thousands of pounds more over the course of their lives.
Stevie Wise, who launched the petition, was driven by a Times investigation which claimed that women and girls are charged, on average, 37% more for clothes, beauty products and toys. The investigation was inspired by research in the US which found that women's products are routinely more expensive than men's. The New York Department of Consumer Affairs had compared the prices of 800 products with male and female versions and concluded that, after controlling for quality, women's versions were, on average, 7% more expensive than men's.
Boots says the two examples highlighted in the Change.org petition are exceptional cases, but campaigners are not so sure. "This is a very exciting response," says Wise. "We are delighted with Boots' decision, but we now need to get them to look at all of their products, not just the ones highlighted in the petition. We hope this decision is just the first of many and we may broaden our campaign to focus on other retailers as well." Wise says that women have been getting in touch with examples of other price discrepancies from lots of companies and says there seems to be a particular problem with toys and clothes. Argos has been criticised for identical scooters that cost £5 more if they were pink rather than blue. Argos said it was an error that had already been rectified and that it would never indulge in differential pricing.
Among the examples sent to Wise was Boots selling identical child car seats that cost more in pink. Another retailer was selling children's balance bikes which cost more for a flowery print aimed at girls than a pirate print aimed at boys. But the latter example already appears to have been tweaked on the retailer's website, albeit by applying a £10 discount to the flowery version. With many retailers indulging in complicated algorithms to calculate price, or frequently changing prices around promotions, it's easy for them to argue that what appears to be a gender price gap is in fact an innocent mistake.
One of the main things that retailers consider when deciding what to charge is what the customer is willing to pay, argues Mark Billige, UK managing partner at Simon-Kucher, a management consultancy that advises companies on things like pricing. "They have to consider what it costs to make the product and what their competitors are charging, but in a world where consumers have lots of choices, willingness to pay becomes very important as people will vote with their wallets if they don't like the price of a product. There is something in the fact that women are willing to pay more. Why, I don't know, but it will probably have something to do with psychology."
When challenged over sexist pricing, both Levi's and Tesco argued that different versions of things could have different production costs even if appearing fairly similar. Prof Nancy Puccinelli, a consumer psychologist at Oxford University says that her research suggests that women are actually much more careful shoppers than men, better able to scrutinise adverts and pricing gimmicks. She wonders if women are perceiving more value in the more expensive products. "For men, razors are functional, whereas women may perceive hair removal as more hedonistic, more about self-care, and be more willing to pay more. But there could also be environmental factors hindering their choices, like product placement in the store. If products are separated into male and female sections far away from each other it's harder to scrutinise prices." Such a situation could either be deliberate or accidental but the campaigners are not convinced.
"It's just the tip of the iceberg," says the Fawcett Society's head of policy, Jemima Olchawski. "It's been happening in plain sight and, to me, it shows that bias against women is ingrained across our society. The worst thing about it is that women are getting ripped off twice. They are paid less than men and are also charged more for similar products." The campaign may lead to further changes, but the perennial advice to shop around remains the same. "There are quite a few comparison websites you can use to see if there's a price difference," says Sally Francis, senior writer at moneysavingexpert.com. If, as Tesco claim, there are "additional design and performance features" testing the male and female versions at home should settle whether they are worth it.
There is an opportunity for some companies, argues Olchawski. "The finding shows the power of marketing in our lives, how it shapes our perception of what it means to be a man or a women. Some companies could choose not to play into this, not to play into the stereotypes and rip women off, but launch products more in tune with moves toward gender equality."

Questions 29–35
Who's responsible for what? Choose A, B, C or D and write your answers in boxes 29–35 on your answer sheet.
A Stevie Wise
B Mark Billige
C Jemima Olchawski
D Nobody from the above

29. Called a debate on the issue 
30. Launched the petition 
31. States that women are willing to pay more 
32. Says that women are more careful shoppers than men 
33. Says that companies should keep in mind gender equality while making products 
34. Was told that there are many problems with prices, especially with toys and clothes 
35. States that women are getting ripped off twice 


Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information in the IELTS reading text?
In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                          if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                        if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN                if there is no information on this

36. "Pink tax" means that women are being charged more than men for the same products. 
37. Due to the fact that the petition gathered more than 43,000 signatures the issue has been raised in Parliament.
38. After comparing the prices of 800 products., it was concluded that women's versions were 7% more expensive than men's. 
39. It is hard for the retailers to pretend that the gender price gap is an innocent mistake. 
40. If male and female products are situated in different sections, it makes it harder to examine the prices. 


ANSWERS
Each question correctly answered scores 1 mark. Correct spelling is needed in all answers.
Section 3
  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. D
  5. C
  6. A
  7. C
  8. True
  9. Not Given
  10. True
  11. False
  12. True